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Does this make any sense to anybody?


abolfaz
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last I heard, Ferrari owned Maserati.

 

Exactly, if ferrari owns maserati and fiat owns ferrari, isn't fiat buying maserati from itself? Why doesn't this make sense?

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you are correct, fiat owns ferrari who owned maserati, and then fiat bought maserati, i remember reading the reasoning behind it but all i can remember is it had something to do with the business structure within the corporation (maybe someone with more business expertise can actualy explain it?)

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check this out:

http://www.autoblog.com/entry/1234000190031961/

 

Doesn't fiat own ferrari?  If so why would fiat buy maserati from ferrari?  What am I missing?

 

This actually happens a lot with publicly traded companies... The fact that one company "owns" another can be misleading... Usually it means the "owner" owns just enough stock in the owned to give the "owner" a controlling number of seats on the board of directors... Theres a mathamatical formula to determine this number... It was on the bar exam... I cant remember it now... It usually works out to a little over 1/3rd of the outstanding stock...

 

Further, a majority shareholder has certain legal duties with regards to his minority shareholders... i.e. not to self deal in such a way that makes their stock worthless.

 

Thus a parent company can do a lot of things to a subsidiary.... but it cant do EVERYTHING.... (like liquidation...) UNTIL it buys up the remaining outstanding shares.... then it can do about whatever it wants... In this case its a subsidiary twice removed.... Fiat is buying up Ferraris share (a large percentage of which it already owns, but not neccesarily ALL) and it might have to make an offer to the outstanding shareholders of BOTH Ferrari and Maserati assuming neither is a wholly owned subsidiary...

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This actually happens a lot with publicly traded companies............................................................

soooooo.... they still make cars and stuff yeah?

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